He who refrains from rebuking a rebellious leader, will be forced to bear the same punishment

He who refrains from rebuking a rebellious leader, will be forced to bear the same punishment

«And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying, “Take the rod, and gather thou the assembly… speak ye unto the rock... and it shall give forth his water … And Moses lifted up his hand, and with his rod he smote the rock twice … And the Lord spake unto Moses and Aaron, Because ye believed me not, to sanctify me in the eyes of the children of Israel, therefore ye shall not bring this congregation into the Land which I have given them”- Numbers 20: 7-8, & 11-12 (King James Bible).
Torah makes clear that Moses actually sinned (by hitting the Rock, instead of speaking unto it). But what was Aaron’s guilt, that he should also be prevented from entering into the Land? According to Reformed Samaritanism, after Aaron saw Moses hitting the rock [for the first time], he should have confronted him [saying, “What are you doing? Didn’t God only ask you to speak unto it? ”].
But, since Aaron remained silent, he was thereby guilty of publicly violating the Divine injunction that goes on to say: “ Thou shalt not hate thy brother in thy heart; thou shalt surely rebuke thy neighbour, and not bear sin because of him (in other words, not rebuking your brother’s rebellion isn’t only sinful, but also intimates you don’t really love him! )”- Leviticus 19: 17 (Jewish Publication Society Bible, 1917 Edition).
And the former truth is also asserted by the Jewish Scripture that goes on to say: “The Lord will enter into judgment with the elders of His people, and the princes thereof... ”- Isaiah 3: 14. Granted that the princes (the rich and powerful) sinned; but why would the elders be also judged (being punished)? Because they saw the public sin of the princess, and decided to remain silent.

Torah teaches poverty and persecution are good for Israel

What is the meaning of the verse that goes on to say: “Behold, I have refined thee, but not as silver; I have tried thee in the furnace of affliction” (Isaiah 48: 10, Jewish Publication Society, 1917 Edition)?
The former verse implies that, among all the good states of being that the Holy One scrutinized to give to Israel, He found none better than poverty. Why? Because in it’s state of desolation, Israel raised up righteous men for God. But when it was in a state of prosperity, it raised up wicked men for God.
In it’s state of desolation, it raised up righteous men for God (Daniel and his associates, Mordecai and it’s associates, Ezra and his associates). But in a state of prosperity, it raised up wicked men for God (Ahaz and his associates, Manasseh and his associates, Amon and his associates).
And the fact that Israel is better off under persecution, poverty, and desolation is also hinted by the verse that goes on to say: “… For more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the Lord” (Isaiah 54: 1, Jewish Publication Society, 1917 Edition)

The New Testament intimates that Jesus (peace and blessings be upon him) was the Messiah only in a symbolic fashion (as he aimed at portraying the one true Messiah that is a life of sincere repentance, justice, humility, and obedience to God's commandments)

The Hebrew Scripture is clear, when it states that the God worshiped by the ancient Israeli people was no man at all (“For He is no man... ”- 1 Samuel 15: 29; “God is no man... ”- Numbers 23: 19).
And it is also clear when it states that, while this God is inherently sinless ("... His work is perfect: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is He" - Deut. 32: 4), it is no less true that man is inherently flawed and sinful (“For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth [only] good, and sinneth not”- Ecclesiastes 7: 20).
In addition, Scripture teaches that there's no other Savior, nor anointed (Messiah) Redeemer, besides this God whose Hebrew name is " YHVH" (Adonai Yah, the God of Abraham). As is written: “I, I am י ה ו ה (Adonai Yah), and there is no Savior beside me”- Isaiah 43: 11 (Tree of Life Version Bible).
Finally, Scripture states that, if there is anyone worthy of being called " the Son of God", as well as " God's own Servant", it is the community of believers represented by the ancient Israeli people. As it has been said: " And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, 'Thus saith the Lord, Israel is My Son, even My Firstborn' " - Exodus 4: 22; And also in another place, " And said unto me, Thou art My Servant, O Israel, in whom I will be glorified" - Isaiah 49: 3.
But if the former is true, then why do the Christian gospels ascribe all of the former titles (God, sinless man, Savior, Redeemer, Messiah, Son of God, God's Servant, etc) to the man named Jesus? Well, the answer is very simple, and is actually provided by the gospels, when they go on to say: “Jesus told the crowds all these things in parables, and he did not tell them anything without a parable”- Matthew 13: 3.
In other words, since Jesus spoke only in parables, none of the claims he made were supposed to be taken in a literal sense, but rather in an allegorical fashion. Consider a first example: Jesus is quoted saying that John the Baptist is the promised Elijah that would come right before the Jewish Messiah (" And if ye will receive it, this is Elijah, which was for to come... " - Matthew 11: 14). But the fact is that the former cannot be literally true, as John himself openly declares that he isn't the literal Elijah (who, according to the Hebrew Bible, is a different physical person still alive somewhere in the heavens).
As is written: " And they asked him [John the Baptist], What then? Art thou Elijah? And he saith, I am Not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No" - John 1: 21. Again, John states that he is not Elijah, while Jesus says that he is. Is one of them lying? No! John says he is not Elijah [in a literal sense]; while Jesus says he is Elijah [in an allegorical sense].
Consider a second example: Jesus claims to be the King of the Jews (" Now Jesus stood before the governor. And the governor asked him, saying, 'Are you the King of the Jews? '. [And] Jesus said to him, 'It is as you say' " - Matthew 27: 11).
But, did Jesus really want to be the [literal] king of the Jews? Of course not! Jesus didn't want to have anything to do with human politics. How do we know it? We know it from the fact that when the Jews tried to make him their [literal] king, Jesus fled away from them (" When Jesus therefore perceived that they [THE JEWS] would come and take him by force, TO MAKE HIM KING, he departed again into a mountain himself alone" - John 6: 15).
The truth is that Jesus wasn't talking about any physical kingdom somewhere in this world, but rather about an " out of this world" (non physical) kingdom. As he himself said: " Jesus answered, 'my kingdom in not from this world... my kingdom is not from here' " - John 18: 36.
Finally, consider the following: first century Jews did expect the coming of a literal Messiah- the “branch of Jesse” (or the biological “Son of David”) mentioned by the prophet (“There shall come forth a Rod from the stem of Jesse, and a Branch shall grow out of his roots. The Spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him, The Spirit of Wisdom and understanding... He shall strike the Earth with the rod of His mouth, and with the breath of His lips He shall slay the wicked”- Isaiah 11: 1-4).
But, was Jesus the literally (biological) Son Of David? Of course not! Why? Two reasons; in the first place [and according to the gospel], Jesus had no biological father, as he was [allegedly] conceived by the Holy Spirit; therefore he could not have been a biological son of any of Jesse's male descendants (keep in mind that Jews traced tribal lineage by their father's genealogy).
Secondly, Jesus himself rejected the idea that the Messiah would be a literal son of David. Why? Again, because such requirement would disqualify him for the post of Messiah; but also because Jesus argued that Scripture never made such literal promise, since it wouldn’t make sense for a sane father to call any of his biological offspring “Lord”. As is written:
«How can the scribes say that the Messiah is the son of David? David himself says by the Holy Spirit: “The Lord declared to my Lord, ‘Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet’. ”… DAVID HIMSELF CALLS HIM ‘LORD’; HOW THEN CAN HE BE HIS SON? ”»- Mark 12: 35-37.

“Beware of turning your religion, your country, your culture, your technology, your ideology, your political views, your ethnicity, or your sexual identity into a false idol (pretending that it can never be mistaken, that it will never need to learn from it’s opponents, or that it won’t ever stand in need of correction! )”