Why are secular Ashkenazi Jews so eager to promote atheism and immorality? What do they seek with this strategy?

Why are secular Ashkenazi Jews so eager to promote atheism and immorality? What do they seek with this strategy?

To begin with, we have to acknowledge that modern Judaism has little to do with the ancient Hebrew religion. In fact, the Torah (the five books of Moses) doesn’t mention the word “Judaism” even once. In addition, it is a historical fact that, as a religion, Judaism became overrunned (hijacked) by the Ashkenazi people centuries ago.
And the morality of the latter people was such that, in times past, whenever a pious Spanish (Sephardi) or Arab (Temani) Jew had to mention the phrase “Ashkenazi Jew”, hew would spit on the ground, as it was a revolting term, associated with the most decadent and disgusting elements of world Jewry. Unfortunately, due to their high birth rate, Ashkenazi Jews have overshadowed all other Jewish groups, to the point that if you don’t share their physical appearance [as well as their loose morality] you’re not considered a real Jew.
But, why do Ashkenazi Jews constantly promote all sort of immorality? The reason is that it shields them from gentile judgment. In other words, you cannot condemn in other people the same faults you are guilty of. Consider a real life example: Leo Frank (may he rest in peace) was a rich Cornell educated Askenazi Jew running a pencil manufacturing plant in Atlanta Georgia at the end of the 19th century. Frank had a reputation for questionable morality, and was accused of the rape [and murder] of one of his 13 years old female employees. But Frank was able to use his money (and huge influence with Georgia’s governor) to escape death penalty.
Still, since Georgia citizens back then still had very high moral values, they couldn’t tolerate such aberration, and agreed to take justice into their own hands by hanging Frank, which they eventually did. And since at that time political correctness was unheard of, no one was ever jailed for the hanging of Frank.
What was the Jewish reply to the former incident? It was two fold. First of all, they created what is currently known as “the Anti defamation League” (the ideological birthplace of the concept of “anti-semitism”). Secondly, they adopted a strategy of moral corruption. In other words, a generalized attempt to induce every gentile (or “non Jewish”) person to embrace an openly immoral lifestyle. Why? So that no gentile could ever consider himself morally superior to the Jew, and therefore capable of passing (and executing) judgment upon him.
Curiously, the Hebrew scripture lends support to the former Jewish strategy. How so? Well, because Scripture states that if God gave Jews the land of Canaan, it wasn’t because they were morally superior. Rather, it was because the gentiles living in the land were even more corrupted than the Jews. As is written: «When the Lord your God drives them out before you, do not say to yourself, ‘The Lord brought me in to take possession of this land because of my righteousness. ’ Instead, THE LORD WILL DRIVE OUT THESE NATIONS BEFORE YOU BECAUSE OF THEIR WICKEDNESS. YOU ARE NOT GOING TO TAKE POSSESSION OF THEIR LAND BECAUSE OF YOUR RIGHTEOUSNESS OR YOUR INTEGRITY. INSTEAD, THE LORD YOUR GOD WILL DRIVE OUT THESE NATIONS BEFORE YOU BECAUSE OF THEIR WICKEDNESS… UNDERSTAND THAT THE LORD YOUR GOD IS NOT GIVING YOU THIS GOOD LAND TO POSSESS BECAUSE OF YOUR RIGHTEOUSNESS, FOR YOU ARE A STIFF-NECKED PEOPLE»- Deuteronomy 9: 4-6.
Thus, secular Ashkenazi Jews will keep subjugating the Gentiles, as long as the latter are willing to bite the immorality bait. But as soon as the Gentiles choose to take the high moral grounds, they will immediately start conquering Ashkenazi Jews. And this explains why Hitler was able to conquer them, as the first thing he did upon coming to power was to ban pornography and prostitution, to close all Gay bars, and to get rid of usury (Jewish banks exorbitant interests).

¿ Que significa el verso que dice que, “los muertos, nada saben” (Eclesiasté s 9: 5)?

La Escritura Hebrea, dice así: «Porque, “los que viven”, saben que han de morir; pero, “los muertos”, nada saben» (Eclesiasté s 9: 5, Biblia Hebrea). ¿ Que intenta decirnos con esto la Escritura? ¿ Por que se nos presenta [como si fuese una gran revelació n divina], algo que aun el mas tontos de los pecadores conoce [que, todo aquel que vive, algú n dí a tendrá que morir]?
Pues lo hace para mostrarnos una verdad mas profunda. Es que, cuando el verso habla de “los vivos”, no esta refirié ndose a aquellos cuyos cuerpos está n vivos, sino a los justos [aquellos cuyas almas está n vivas, pues ya tienen vida eterna]. Estos “vivos”, saben que sus cuerpos habrá n de morir, pero no tienen temor, pues saben que sus almas vivirá n para siempre.
Por el otro lado, cuando el verso habla de “los muertos”, esta refirié ndose a los injustos [aquellos que se oponen a la Ley de Dios], cuyos cuerpos está n vivos, pero cuyas almas está n “muertas en vida”. Es que, el alma que no se fundamenta en la Ley Divina, esta “muerta”, y “nada sabe” de las verdades de Dios. Y, si esta alma esta muerta, aun cuando su cuerpo esta vivo, ¿ cuanto mas no estará muerta cuando su cuerpo haya fallecido?